So what is Walton's silly comment? This:
Absence of order describes nonexistence; to bara something brings it into existence by giving it a role and a function in an ordered system. This is not the sort of origins account that we would expect in our modern world...I have a hard time with claims like this. We know that at least as far back as Parmenides questions of existence and non-existence were talked about in terms of non-being (the absence) of all being. I am also sure that Parmenides was not the first to hit upon such a notion. I need to research this question a little more to see how far back these ideas go, but suffice to say speaking of non-existence in terms of non-being is not a modern invention. It isn't because we are so advanced that we have notions of being and non-being, those concepts are foundations of human thought. Anyway, that is all I've got for now.